SkillTestPro | Cisco CCNA Practice Exam

Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA Practice Test 1

Cisco CCNA Practice Quiz

1 / 100

What IPv6 transition method allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated inside IPv4 packets for compatibility?

Dual Stack

NAT64

DNS64

Teredo

EUI-64

2 / 100

A network administrator needs to limit bandwidth usage for a specific application on a Cisco router. Which feature should be used?

Access Control Lists (ACLs)

Quality of Service (QoS)

VLAN Tagging

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

OSPF Cost

3 / 100

What does the command switchport mode dynamic desirable do on a switch interface?

Forces the port into access mode

Forces the port into trunk mode

Disables trunking

Sets the port to block all VLAN traffic

Allows the port to negotiate trunking if the other side is also set to negotiate

4 / 100

Which spanning-tree protocol version allows for faster convergence and multiple spanning-tree instances?

STP

RSTP

MST

PVST+

BPDU

5 / 100

What happens when a router receives a packet with a destination IP that is not in its routing table?

The router drops the packet

The router sends an ARP request

The router forwards it to the next available neighbor

The router sends an ICMP redirect

The router assigns a default route

6 / 100

What type of DNS record maps a domain name to an IPv6 address?

A Record

MX Record

AAAA Record

PTR Record

CNAME Record

7 / 100

A network engineer needs to establish a secure site-to-site VPN between two offices. Which protocol should be used?

L2TP

PPTP

SNMP

IPSec

Telnet

8 / 100

A router is configured with both OSPF and EIGRP for different network segments. A destination is reachable via both protocols. Which route will be preferred in the routing table?

The OSPF route

The EIGRP route

The route with the longest prefix match

The route learned first

The route with the highest metric

9 / 100

Which command would an administrator use to verify the status of a trunk port on a Cisco switch?

show ip interface brief

show interfaces trunk

show running-config

show vlan brief

show mac address-table

10 / 100

A network administrator wants to configure a switch to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to specific ports. Which feature should be implemented?

Port Mirroring

VLAN Trunking

Port Security

STP

BPDU Guard

11 / 100

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

100

110

120

170

12 / 100

What type of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP?

Static NAT

Dynamic NAT

Port Address Translation (PAT)

Overlapping NAT

Loopback NAT

13 / 100

What does CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) primarily provide?

Encrypted data transfer

Neighbor device information

IP address assignment

Traffic monitoring

VPN connectivity

14 / 100

A router has multiple static routes to the same destination. Which one will be used?

The one with the highest metric

The one with the lowest administrative distance

The one with the longest subnet mask

The one configured last

The one with the most next-hop addresses

15 / 100

Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

NAT

DHCP

ARP

ICMP

BGP

16 / 100

Which ACL type inspects both source and destination IP addresses?

Standard ACL

Named ACL

Reflexive ACL

Extended ACL

Dynamic ACL

17 / 100

What type of OSPF network type requires a DR (Designated Router) and BDR (Backup Designated Router)?

Point-to-Point

Broadcast

Non-Broadcast Multi-Access

Loopback

Stub

18 / 100

What is the main purpose of a STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)?

Enables VLAN trunking

Prevents broadcast storms and loops

Provides dynamic IP addressing

Encrypts data transmissions

Enhances routing efficiency

19 / 100

What type of attack involves an attacker flooding a switch's CAM table with fake MAC addresses?

Man-in-the-middle

Denial-of-Service

MAC Address Flooding

MAC Address Spoofing

ARP Poisoning

20 / 100

What is the primary function of a trunk link in VLAN configurations?

Carries multiple VLANs over a single link

Blocks broadcast traffic

Carries only untagged traffic

Allows inter-VLAN routing

Connects only end-user devices

21 / 100

A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not in its MAC table. What will the switch do?

Drop the frame

Forward it to the default gateway

Send an ICMP request

Flood the frame out all ports except the source port

Generate an ARP request

22 / 100

What protocol is used for secure remote access to network devices and encrypts all communication?

Telnet

RSH

FTP

SSH

HTTP

23 / 100

Which Layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable communication and error recovery?

Physical

Data Link

Network

Transport

Session

24 / 100

A network engineer wants to set a router to use DHCP to obtain its IP address. Which command should they use?

ip dhcp enable

service dhcp

dhcp pool dynamic

ip dhcp client

ip address dhcp

25 / 100

What type of address is FE80::1 in an IPv6 network?

Global Unicast

Multicast

Link-Local

Anycast

Loopback

26 / 100

A router in a network is receiving two identical OSPF routes with different cost values. Which route will be installed in the routing table?

The route with the highest cost

The route with the lowest cost

Both routes will be installed

The route from the router with the lowest IP address

The route from the router with the highest OSPF priority

27 / 100

A network administrator needs to verify the bandwidth of an interface and view errors, collisions, and drops. Which command should they use?

show interfaces

show running-config

show ip interface brief

show version

show vlan

28 / 100

A router in an EIGRP network has lost its successor route and is searching for an alternative path. What action does it take?

Transitions to a passive state

Broadcasts a RIP request

Sends a query packet to its neighbors

Enters a hold-down state

Flushes all routing table entries

29 / 100

A company is implementing VLANs and needs to ensure inter-VLAN communication. Which device is required?

Layer 2 Switch

Hub

Router

Layer 3 Switch

Bridge

30 / 100

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router with multiple interfaces. They need to prevent OSPF hello packets from being sent on an interface but still include the network in the OSPF topology. Which command should be used?

network area

ip ospf priority 0

ip ospf cost

passive-interface

no shutdown

31 / 100

Which statement correctly distinguishes 802.11ac from 802.11ax wireless standards?

802.11ac operates only in the 2.4 GHz band with no MU-MIMO support at all

802.11ax operates only in the 5 GHz band with no backward compatibility to older standards

802.11ac operates only in the 5 GHz band and supports downlink MU-MIMO, while 802.11ax adds OFDMA and operates in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

802.11ac and 802.11ax are functionally identical with no distinguishing features

802.11n operating exclusively in the 2.4 GHz band with no 5 GHz capability

802.11g operating in the 2.4 GHz band only, with no OFDMA support

32 / 100

A network engineer needs to connect two switches 300 meters apart using a link that is immune to electromagnetic interference. Which cabling type should be used?

Category 6 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) copper cable

Category 5e shielded twisted pair (STP) copper cable

Multimode or single-mode fiber optic cable

Coaxial cable rated for Ethernet use

Wireless connectivity using an unlicensed 2.4 GHz radio link

Category 3 copper cabling rated for legacy voice-grade telephone use

33 / 100

Which network topology architecture connects every access switch directly to every spine switch, providing predictable latency and eliminating the need for a traditional core layer?

Three-tier hierarchical topology

Hub-and-spoke WAN topology

Spine-leaf topology

Full-mesh SOHO topology

A ring topology connecting all switches in a single closed loop

A collapsed core two-tier topology combining core and distribution into a single layer

34 / 100

A switch port is showing a high number of late collisions in its interface counters. Which condition is the most likely cause?

The cable exceeds the maximum supported length for its category rating

The switch port is configured as a trunk instead of an access port

A duplex mismatch between the switch port and the connected device

The connected device is using IPv6 instead of IPv4 addressing

An incorrect VLAN assignment on the switch port

A faulty transceiver module unrelated to duplex settings

35 / 100

Which statement accurately compares TCP and UDP?

UDP guarantees delivery and retransmits lost segments, while TCP does not

TCP and UDP both require a three-way handshake before sending any data

TCP provides connection-oriented, reliable delivery with sequencing and acknowledgments, while UDP provides connectionless, best-effort delivery with lower overhead

UDP always provides higher reliability than TCP for real-time applications

TCP and UDP both operate exclusively at Layer 2 of the OSI model

UDP requires a four-way handshake before establishing any session

36 / 100

An administrator has been assigned the private IPv4 address range 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255. Which RFC 1918 private address block does this represent?

10.0.0.0/8

192.168.0.0/16

172.16.0.0/12

169.254.0.0/16

192.168.0.0/16

100.64.0.0/10

37 / 100

Which virtualization component is responsible for creating and managing virtual machines, allocating physical hardware resources such as CPU and memory to each VM?

Virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) instance

Container runtime engine

Hypervisor

Software-defined WAN controller

A physical network interface card (NIC) installed in the host server

A top-of-rack physical switch connecting virtual machines to the network

38 / 100

Which statement correctly describes a key difference between containers and traditional virtual machines?

Virtual machines share the host operating system's kernel, while containers each require a separate guest operating system

Containers and virtual machines both require a dedicated hypervisor with no other differences

Containers share the host operating system's kernel, making them more lightweight, while each virtual machine runs its own complete guest operating system

Virtual machines always start faster than containers due to their lighter resource footprint

Containers require a separate hypervisor for every single container instance

Containers always require more disk space per instance than an equivalent virtual machine

39 / 100

A switch port configured as an 802.1Q trunk is carrying traffic for VLANs 10, 20, and 30, plus the native VLAN 1. Which statement about the native VLAN traffic is correct?

Traffic for the native VLAN is always tagged with a VLAN ID of 0

The native VLAN cannot be transmitted across an 802.1Q trunk link

Traffic for the native VLAN is sent across the trunk untagged by default

All VLANs, including the native VLAN, are always tagged on an 802.1Q trunk

Native VLAN traffic is dropped entirely and never forwarded across the trunk

Native VLAN traffic is encapsulated using ISL rather than 802.1Q by default

40 / 100

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is a Cisco proprietary protocol, as opposed to the IEEE standard alternative?

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), used specifically for EtherChannel negotiation

Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP), which negotiates trunking mode rather than link aggregation

41 / 100

In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which port role receives more useful BPDUs from another switch on the same shared segment where this switch already has a designated port, providing backup connectivity to that segment?

Alternate port

Designated port

Backup port

Root port

Designated port

42 / 100

An administrator wants a PortFast-enabled switch port to be automatically placed into an error-disabled state if it ever receives a BPDU. Which STP feature accomplishes this?

Root Guard

Loop Guard

BPDU Guard

BPDU Filter

Loop Guard, which instead prevents a non-designated port from becoming designated due to unidirectional link failure

Root Guard, which instead prevents a port from becoming the root port by ignoring superior BPDUs

43 / 100

Which Layer 2 discovery protocol is an open, vendor-neutral standard supported across multiple network equipment vendors, unlike Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)?

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)

Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which serves an unrelated loop-prevention function

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP), an unrelated first-hop redundancy protocol

44 / 100

Which wireless architecture uses a centralized wireless LAN controller (WLC) that manages configuration and control-plane functions for multiple lightweight access points?

Autonomous access point architecture

Mesh-only wireless architecture with no controller

Centralized (controller-based) wireless architecture

Cloud-only wireless architecture requiring no on-premises hardware

Split-MAC autonomous architecture with no controller involvement

Fabric-based architecture with no distinction between control and data plane

45 / 100

Which statement best describes an appropriate use of out-of-band management access to a network device?

Managing the device exclusively through the same production data VLAN it forwards user traffic on

Out-of-band management requires the device's data-plane interfaces to be fully operational

Using a dedicated console or management network path so the device remains reachable even if its primary data-plane network connectivity fails

Out-of-band management can only be performed using Telnet over the production network

In-band management using the device's production data interfaces exclusively

Console access limited exclusively to a locally attached terminal with no network path at all

46 / 100

A network administrator needs to allow a new access point to be added to the network and centrally managed via the cloud, with configuration and monitoring handled through a cloud-based dashboard. Which device management access method does this describe?

Console-only local access with no remote capability

In-band access exclusively over Telnet

Cloud-managed access

AUX port access exclusively

Autonomous access point management requiring individual CLI configuration per device

Telnet-based in-band access secured with a locally configured line password

47 / 100

A router has two routes to the same destination network: a static route with an administrative distance of 1, and an OSPF-learned route with an administrative distance of 110. Which route will the router install in its routing table?

The OSPF route, because dynamic routing protocols always take priority over static routes

Both routes are installed and traffic is load-balanced equally between them

The static route, because it has the lower administrative distance

Neither route is installed since there is a conflict between the two sources

The route with the lowest metric value is always installed regardless of administrative distance

The router installs whichever route was configured first regardless of source

48 / 100

A router's routing table contains both a route to 192.168.1.0/24 and a more specific route to 192.168.1.128/25. When forwarding a packet destined for 192.168.1.130, which route will the router use?

The 192.168.1.0/24 route, because shorter prefixes are always preferred

The router will load-balance the packet across both routes equally

The 192.168.1.128/25 route, because it is the longest (most specific) match

The router will drop the packet due to the routing table conflict

The router always prefers the route learned most recently regardless of prefix length

The router selects the route with the numerically lowest next-hop IP address

49 / 100

Which command correctly configures a default static route on a Cisco IOS router pointing to a next-hop IP address of 203.0.113.1?

ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 203.0.113.1

ip default-route 203.0.113.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

ip route default 203.0.113.1

ip route 0.0.0.0/0 203.0.113.1

ip route 203.0.113.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

50 / 100

In a single-area OSPFv2 deployment, which value is used as a tiebreaker to elect the Designated Router (DR) on a multi-access segment when OSPF priority values are equal?

The lowest router ID

The lowest IP address on the connected interface

The highest router ID

The order in which routers powered on

The lowest OSPF priority value configured on any interface in the segment

The router with the lowest loopback interface IP address configured

51 / 100

Which OSPF network type is the default for point-to-point serial links and does not require Designated Router or Backup Designated Router election?

Broadcast network type

Non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) network type

Point-to-point network type

Point-to-multipoint network type

Non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) network type, which is the default on Frame Relay style multipoint interfaces

Broadcast network type, which instead requires DR and BDR election on the segment

52 / 100

An HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) group is configured with two routers. Which router forwards traffic sent to the virtual gateway IP address under normal operating conditions?

The router elected as the HSRP standby router

Both routers forward traffic simultaneously in an active-active fashion

The router elected as the HSRP active router

Neither router forwards traffic until a failover event occurs

Both routers forward half of the traffic in a round-robin fashion

The standby router forwards traffic only for even-numbered destination IP addresses

53 / 100

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is an open IETF standard, unlike HSRP which is Cisco proprietary?

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) version 2

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP), which is Cisco proprietary

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP), which addresses a different Layer 2 loop-prevention need

54 / 100

A network engineer needs to subnet the network 192.168.10.0/24 to support at least 30 usable hosts per subnet while wasting as few addresses as possible. Which subnet mask should be used?

255.255.255.192 (/26)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

255.255.255.128 (/25)

255.255.255.0 (/24)

255.255.255.248 (/29)

55 / 100

Which IPv6 address type is used for communication between a single sender and the single nearest interface among a group of interfaces, typically used in load-balancing or redundancy scenarios?

Unicast address

Multicast address

Anycast address

Link-local address

Multicast address, used for one-to-many communication rather than nearest-interface delivery

Unique local address, intended for private routing within an organization rather than nearest-interface delivery

56 / 100

Which IPv6 address is automatically assigned to every IPv6-enabled interface and is used only for communication within the local network segment, never routed beyond it?

Global unicast address

Unique local address (fc00::/7)

Link-local address (fe80::/10)

Multicast address (ff00::/8)

Global unicast address, which is routable across the public Internet

Loopback address (::1), used only for testing on the local device itself

57 / 100

Which type of Network Address Translation maps a single inside local IP address to a single, unique inside global IP address on a one-to-one, permanent basis?

Dynamic NAT

Port Address Translation (PAT)

Static NAT

NAT64

Dynamic NAT using a pool of addresses with automatic one-to-many translation

Static NAT with automatic port translation applied to every mapped address

58 / 100

Which NAT technique allows many internal hosts to share a single public IP address by translating both the IP address and the port number for each connection?

Static NAT

Dynamic NAT using a pool of addresses with no port translation

Port Address Translation (PAT), also known as NAT overload

NAT64

NAT64, used specifically for IPv6-to-IPv4 translation rather than address sharing

NAT-PT, a deprecated IPv6 transition mechanism unrelated to address sharing

59 / 100

In NTP (Network Time Protocol) terminology, what does a stratum number represent?

The physical distance in kilometers between the NTP client and server

The number of NTP clients currently synchronized to that server

The number of hops a time source is away from an authoritative reference clock

The encryption strength used to secure the NTP synchronization messages

The version number of the NTP protocol currently in use

The total number of NTP packets exchanged during the synchronization process

60 / 100

Which DHCP message is sent by a client to formally request the specific IP address offered by a DHCP server, broadcast so that any other DHCP servers that made offers know their offers were not accepted?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK

DHCPDECLINE, sent when a client detects the offered address is already in use

DHCPNAK, sent by the server to reject a client's renewal request

61 / 100

Which switch port security violation mode drops offending frames, increments the violation counter, and sends an SNMP trap and syslog message, but does NOT shut down the port?

Shutdown mode

Protect mode

Restrict mode

Shutdown VLAN mode

Shutdown mode, which error-disables the port entirely on a violation

Protect mode, which drops offending frames silently with no logging at all

62 / 100

Which AAA function is responsible for tracking and logging what a user did after being granted access, such as recording commands executed during a session?

Authentication

Authorization

Accounting

Auditing policy enforcement

Authorization, which determines what an authenticated user is permitted to do

Authentication, which verifies a user's identity rather than logging their activity

63 / 100

A standard IPv4 access control list is being used to filter traffic based only on source IP address. Which of the following correctly describes a key limitation of standard ACLs compared to extended ACLs?

Standard ACLs can filter on source and destination address, protocol, and port number, exactly like extended ACLs

Standard ACLs cannot be applied to any router interface under any circumstance

Standard ACLs can filter only on source IP address and cannot filter based on destination address, protocol, or port number

Standard ACLs can only be used to filter Layer 2 MAC addresses, never Layer 3 IP addresses

Standard ACLs can filter based on destination port number only, not source address

Standard ACLs require a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 for every entry with no exceptions

64 / 100

Where should an extended access control list generally be applied for the most efficient use of network bandwidth?

As close to the destination of the traffic as possible

Only on the router acting as the default gateway for the entire network

As close to the source of the traffic as possible

Extended ACL placement has no effect on bandwidth efficiency

ACL placement never impacts network performance in any topology

Extended ACLs can only be applied to Layer 2 switch ports, never router interfaces

65 / 100

Which DHCP-related Layer 2 security feature prevents an unauthorized or rogue DHCP server from responding to client DHCP requests on untrusted switch ports?

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)

Port security with sticky MAC addresses

DHCP snooping

IP Source Guard

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), which instead validates ARP packets against a trusted binding table

Port security with sticky MAC addresses, which instead limits the number of learned MAC addresses per port

66 / 100

Which type of VPN allows an individual remote user's device to establish an encrypted tunnel back to a central corporate network, commonly used for remote workers connecting from home?

Site-to-site VPN

Clientless SSL VPN configured for site-to-site traffic exclusively

Remote access VPN

MPLS VPN

Site-to-site VPN, which connects two entire networks rather than an individual device

MPLS VPN, a provider-managed WAN technology rather than an individual client-initiated tunnel

67 / 100

In a software-defined networking (SDN) controller-based architecture, which plane handles communication between the SDN controller and the applications running above it?

Southbound API

Data plane

Northbound API

Control plane exclusively

Southbound API, which connects the controller to the underlying network devices

East-west API, a term not used to describe controller-to-application communication

68 / 100

Which data serialization format uses key-value pairs and arrays enclosed in curly braces and square brackets, and is commonly used in REST API request and response bodies?

YAML

XML

JSON (JavaScript Object Notation)

CSV

XML, which uses opening and closing tags rather than curly braces and key-value pairs

CSV, which represents tabular data as comma-separated values rather than nested key-value structures

69 / 100

Which HTTP verb is typically used in a RESTful API to completely replace an existing resource with a new representation?

GET

DELETE

PUT

OPTIONS

PATCH, which is typically used for partial rather than complete resource replacement

OPTIONS, which is used to describe communication options for a resource rather than replace it

70 / 100

Which configuration management tool is agentless, using SSH to connect to managed devices and applying configuration defined in YAML-based playbooks?

Terraform, which is primarily focused on infrastructure provisioning rather than agentless configuration push

Puppet, which typically requires an agent installed on managed nodes

Ansible

Chef, which typically requires an agent installed on managed nodes

Puppet, which typically requires an agent installed on managed nodes

Chef, which typically requires an agent installed on managed nodes

71 / 100

Which OSI model layer is responsible for logical addressing and determining the best path for data to travel across multiple networks?

Layer 2, the Data Link layer

Layer 4, the Transport layer

Layer 3, the Network layer

Layer 7, the Application layer

Layer 1, the Physical layer

Layer 5, the Session layer

72 / 100

A MAC address is 48 bits long and is typically displayed in hexadecimal notation. Which portion of the MAC address identifies the manufacturer of the network interface card?

The last 24 bits, known as the device-specific serial portion

The entire 48 bits collectively, with no vendor-specific portion

The Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI), the first 24 bits

The first 8 bits only, known as the vendor flag

The middle 16 bits, known as the network segment identifier

The final 8 bits, known as the checksum byte

73 / 100

Which type of Ethernet cable is required to directly connect two switches together using older network interface cards that lack Auto-MDIX support?

A straight-through cable

A rollover (console) cable

A crossover cable

A coaxial patch cable

A serial DB-9 cable

A patch panel cable with no wire pair swapping

74 / 100

Which field in the IPv4 header is decremented by each router that forwards the packet, and causes the packet to be discarded once it reaches zero, preventing infinite routing loops?

Type of Service (ToS)

Header Checksum

Time to Live (TTL)

Fragment Offset

Protocol field

The Identification field, used only for fragment reassembly

75 / 100

A host needs to send a packet to another host on the same local subnet but only knows its IP address. Which protocol is used to discover the corresponding MAC address?

Domain Name System (DNS)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) exclusively

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), which performs an equivalent role only in IPv6

76 / 100

Which IEEE Power over Ethernet standard increased the maximum power delivered per port to support higher-power devices such as pan-tilt-zoom cameras, compared to the original 802.3af standard?

802.3af (original PoE)

802.3u (Fast Ethernet)

802.3at (PoE+)

802.3z (Gigabit Ethernet over fiber)

802.3ab (Gigabit Ethernet over copper)

802.3bt (PoE++), which further increased power beyond 802.3at

77 / 100

Which VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) mode allows a switch to create, modify, and delete VLANs, with those changes propagated to other switches in the same VTP domain?

Client mode

Transparent mode

Server mode

Off mode

Pruning mode

Pruning mode, which instead restricts VTP advertisements to trunks carrying active VLANs

78 / 100

Two trunk links between switches have mismatched native VLAN configurations. What is the most likely consequence of this misconfiguration?

The trunk link will automatically renegotiate to use the higher of the two native VLAN numbers

The switches will automatically shut down the mismatched trunk ports with no warning

Traffic from the mismatched native VLANs may leak between VLANs, and CDP will typically generate a native VLAN mismatch warning

IPv6 traffic will be silently converted to IPv4 across the mismatched trunk

The mismatch has no effect since native VLAN configuration is purely cosmetic

The switches will automatically disable CDP on the mismatched ports only

79 / 100

Which EtherChannel load-balancing method distributes traffic across bundled links based on a hash of source and destination IP addresses?

Source MAC address only load balancing

Round-robin load balancing with no hashing involved

Source-destination IP load balancing

Load balancing based solely on frame arrival time

Load balancing based solely on VLAN ID

Load balancing based exclusively on the Layer 4 TCP port number with no IP address involved

80 / 100

Which Spanning Tree Protocol port state allows a switch port to learn MAC addresses from received frames but does not yet forward any user data traffic?

Blocking state

Forwarding state

Learning state

Listening state, which also does not learn MAC addresses

Disabled state

Protecting state, an undefined STP state not part of the standard 802.1D state machine

81 / 100

Which type of information can be learned about a directly connected Cisco neighbor device using Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)?

The neighbor's configured DHCP lease time

The neighbor's BGP autonomous system number

The neighbor's device type, IOS version, and the local and remote port used for the connection

The neighbor's currently logged-in username

The neighbor's configured NTP server address

The neighbor's currently active OSPF or EIGRP neighbor adjacencies

82 / 100

An administrator wants to prevent a wireless network's SSID from appearing in the list of available networks on client devices, requiring users to manually enter the network name to connect. Which wireless configuration accomplishes this?

Enabling WPA3 encryption

Configuring MAC address filtering

Disabling SSID broadcast

Lowering the access point's transmit power

Enabling band steering

Enabling Fast Roaming (802.11r) between access points

83 / 100

Which type of routing protocol makes forwarding decisions based on a full topological map of the network built from link-state advertisements, rather than relying on periodic full routing table exchanges with neighbors?

Distance-vector routing protocol

Path-vector routing protocol

Link-state routing protocol

Hybrid routing protocol exclusively

Classful routing protocol

Path-vector routing protocol, which instead tracks the list of autonomous systems a route has traversed

84 / 100

By default, how does OSPF calculate the cost metric for an interface?

Cost is calculated based on the number of hops to the destination

Cost is a fixed value of 1 for every interface regardless of bandwidth

Cost is calculated as a reference bandwidth value divided by the interface's configured bandwidth

Cost is calculated based on interface delay measured in microseconds

Cost is manually assigned by Cisco and cannot be changed by an administrator

Cost is calculated based solely on the number of routers between source and destination

85 / 100

Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) is originated by every router to describe its own directly connected links and is flooded within its own area?

Type 2, Network LSA

Type 3, Summary LSA

Type 1, Router LSA

Type 5, External LSA

Type 4, ASBR Summary LSA

Type 2, Network LSA, which instead is originated by the DR on multi-access segments

86 / 100

Which command correctly configures a static route to network 10.0.0.0/24 using an exit interface rather than a next-hop IP address?

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 exit-interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip route GigabitEthernet0/1 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

ip route 10.0.0.0/24 GigabitEthernet0/1

route static 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

ip route interface GigabitEthernet0/1 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

87 / 100

Which type of static route is configured with a higher administrative distance than the primary route to the same destination, so it is used only as a backup if the primary route becomes unavailable?

A default static route

A summary static route

A floating static route

A recursive static route

A directly connected static route

A default static route, which instead matches all destinations rather than serving as a backup

88 / 100

Which IPv6 address assignment method allows a host to automatically generate its own global unicast address using information from router advertisements, without needing a stateful DHCPv6 server?

Stateful DHCPv6 assignment

Static manual IPv6 address configuration

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)

NAT64 address translation

Unique local address auto-derivation

A manually assigned unique local address configured on every interface

89 / 100

In an HSRP configuration, which value determines which router is elected as the active router when multiple routers are members of the same HSRP group?

The lowest configured HSRP priority value

The router with the most recently rebooted interface

The highest configured HSRP priority value

The router with the lowest interface IP address

The order in which routers were added to the HSRP group

The router with the lowest MAC address on its HSRP-enabled interface

90 / 100

A router receives a packet for a destination network that does not match any specific route in its routing table, but a default route (0.0.0.0/0) is configured. What will the router do with the packet?

Immediately drop the packet since no specific route matches

Broadcast the packet out all interfaces to find the destination

Forward the packet using the default route, often referred to as the gateway of last resort

Return the packet to the original source with an ICMP redirect

Hold the packet in a queue indefinitely until a matching route appears

Silently discard the packet without generating any ICMP message under any circumstance

91 / 100

Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv4 address?

AAAA record

CNAME record

A record

MX record

PTR record

MX record, which instead specifies a domain's mail exchange servers

92 / 100

Which QoS mechanism marks packets at the edge of a network based on classification criteria such as source, application, or DSCP value, so downstream devices can apply appropriate treatment without re-examining the traffic in depth?

Congestion avoidance

Traffic policing

Classification and marking

Traffic shaping

Compression

Traffic remarking, which instead changes an existing marking rather than performing initial classification

93 / 100

Which of the following is a key security advantage of SSH over Telnet for remote device management?

SSH uses a lower TCP port number than Telnet, making it inherently more secure

Telnet requires a username and password while SSH does not require any authentication

SSH encrypts the entire session, including login credentials, while Telnet transmits everything, including passwords, in plaintext

SSH can only be used on wireless networks, while Telnet is wired-only

There is no meaningful security difference between SSH and Telnet

Telnet encrypts only the initial login exchange but not subsequent command traffic

94 / 100

Which three properties make up the foundational CIA triad used to describe core information security goals?

Confidentiality, Isolation, and Authentication

Consistency, Integrity, and Accountability

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authorization

Compliance, Isolation, and Availability

Continuity, Isolation, and Auditability

95 / 100

Which wireless security standard introduced Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to replace the pre-shared key exchange method used in WPA2, improving resistance to offline dictionary attacks?

WPA2

WEP

WPA3

WPA (original)

802.1X alone without WPA

WPA (original), which relied on TKIP rather than SAE

96 / 100

Which syslog severity level indicates the most critical condition, representing a system that is unusable?

Critical (severity level 2)

Error (severity level 3)

Emergency (severity level 0)

Warning (severity level 4)

Alert (severity level 1)

Notice (severity level 5)

97 / 100

In a firewall zone-based security model, what generally happens to traffic attempting to pass between two zones with no explicit policy defined between them?

The traffic is permitted by default until a policy is explicitly configured

The traffic is automatically routed to a demilitarized zone (DMZ) for inspection

The traffic is denied by default

The traffic is permitted but logged for later review

The firewall automatically creates a permissive policy based on traffic volume

The traffic is automatically encrypted rather than being permitted or denied

98 / 100

Which of the following is a recommended security practice for storing user passwords in a system's authentication database, rather than storing the actual plaintext password?

Storing the password in plaintext for faster authentication lookups

Storing the password using simple Base64 encoding

Storing a salted cryptographic hash of the password

Storing the password reversed character by character

Storing only the password's character length with no other data

Storing the password using reversible symmetric encryption with a shared key

99 / 100

Which protocol, often paired with the YANG data modeling language, is used for programmatic configuration management and retrieval of operational state from network devices?

SNMP

Syslog

NETCONF

TFTP

HTTP alone without any structured data model

RESTCONF, which provides a similar function but over HTTP rather than SSH

100 / 100

Which Cisco platform provides centralized, controller-based management, automation, and assurance for enterprise wired and wireless networks, often used as an example of controller-based networking in the CCNA blueprint?

Cisco Umbrella

Cisco WebEx

Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly Cisco DNA Center)

Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Cisco Prime Infrastructure exclusively for legacy monitoring

Cisco Meraki Dashboard, which is cloud-managed rather than an on-premises controller platform

Your score is

The average score is 69%

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