Cisco CCNA Practice Exam

Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA Practice Test 1

Cisco CCNA Practice Quiz

1 / 100

What IPv6 transition method allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated inside IPv4 packets for compatibility?

2 / 100

A network administrator needs to limit bandwidth usage for a specific application on a Cisco router. Which feature should be used?

3 / 100

What does the command switchport mode dynamic desirable do on a switch interface?

4 / 100

Which spanning-tree protocol version allows for faster convergence and multiple spanning-tree instances?

5 / 100

What happens when a router receives a packet with a destination IP that is not in its routing table?

6 / 100

What type of DNS record maps a domain name to an IPv6 address?

7 / 100

A network engineer needs to establish a secure site-to-site VPN between two offices. Which protocol should be used?

8 / 100

A router is configured with both OSPF and EIGRP for different network segments. A destination is reachable via both protocols. Which route will be preferred in the routing table?

9 / 100

Which command would an administrator use to verify the status of a trunk port on a Cisco switch?

10 / 100

A network administrator wants to configure a switch to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to specific ports. Which feature should be implemented?

11 / 100

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

12 / 100

What type of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP?

13 / 100

What does CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) primarily provide?

14 / 100

A router has multiple static routes to the same destination. Which one will be used?

15 / 100

Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

16 / 100

Which ACL type inspects both source and destination IP addresses?

17 / 100

What type of OSPF network type requires a DR (Designated Router) and BDR (Backup Designated Router)?

18 / 100

What is the main purpose of a STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)?

19 / 100

What type of attack involves an attacker flooding a switch's CAM table with fake MAC addresses?

20 / 100

What is the primary function of a trunk link in VLAN configurations?

21 / 100

A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not in its MAC table. What will the switch do?

22 / 100

What protocol is used for secure remote access to network devices and encrypts all communication?

23 / 100

Which Layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable communication and error recovery?

24 / 100

A network engineer wants to set a router to use DHCP to obtain its IP address. Which command should they use?

25 / 100

What type of address is FE80::1 in an IPv6 network?

26 / 100

A router in a network is receiving two identical OSPF routes with different cost values. Which route will be installed in the routing table?

27 / 100

A network administrator needs to verify the bandwidth of an interface and view errors, collisions, and drops. Which command should they use?

28 / 100

A router in an EIGRP network has lost its successor route and is searching for an alternative path. What action does it take?

29 / 100

A company is implementing VLANs and needs to ensure inter-VLAN communication. Which device is required?

30 / 100

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router with multiple interfaces. They need to prevent OSPF hello packets from being sent on an interface but still include the network in the OSPF topology. Which command should be used?

31 / 100

Which statement correctly distinguishes 802.11ac from 802.11ax wireless standards?

32 / 100

A network engineer needs to connect two switches 300 meters apart using a link that is immune to electromagnetic interference. Which cabling type should be used?

33 / 100

Which network topology architecture connects every access switch directly to every spine switch, providing predictable latency and eliminating the need for a traditional core layer?

34 / 100

A switch port is showing a high number of late collisions in its interface counters. Which condition is the most likely cause?

35 / 100

Which statement accurately compares TCP and UDP?

36 / 100

An administrator has been assigned the private IPv4 address range 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255. Which RFC 1918 private address block does this represent?

37 / 100

Which virtualization component is responsible for creating and managing virtual machines, allocating physical hardware resources such as CPU and memory to each VM?

38 / 100

Which statement correctly describes a key difference between containers and traditional virtual machines?

39 / 100

A switch port configured as an 802.1Q trunk is carrying traffic for VLANs 10, 20, and 30, plus the native VLAN 1. Which statement about the native VLAN traffic is correct?

40 / 100

Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is a Cisco proprietary protocol, as opposed to the IEEE standard alternative?

41 / 100

In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which port role receives more useful BPDUs from another switch on the same shared segment where this switch already has a designated port, providing backup connectivity to that segment?

42 / 100

An administrator wants a PortFast-enabled switch port to be automatically placed into an error-disabled state if it ever receives a BPDU. Which STP feature accomplishes this?

43 / 100

Which Layer 2 discovery protocol is an open, vendor-neutral standard supported across multiple network equipment vendors, unlike Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)?

44 / 100

Which wireless architecture uses a centralized wireless LAN controller (WLC) that manages configuration and control-plane functions for multiple lightweight access points?

45 / 100

Which statement best describes an appropriate use of out-of-band management access to a network device?

46 / 100

A network administrator needs to allow a new access point to be added to the network and centrally managed via the cloud, with configuration and monitoring handled through a cloud-based dashboard. Which device management access method does this describe?

47 / 100

A router has two routes to the same destination network: a static route with an administrative distance of 1, and an OSPF-learned route with an administrative distance of 110. Which route will the router install in its routing table?

48 / 100

A router's routing table contains both a route to 192.168.1.0/24 and a more specific route to 192.168.1.128/25. When forwarding a packet destined for 192.168.1.130, which route will the router use?

49 / 100

Which command correctly configures a default static route on a Cisco IOS router pointing to a next-hop IP address of 203.0.113.1?

50 / 100

In a single-area OSPFv2 deployment, which value is used as a tiebreaker to elect the Designated Router (DR) on a multi-access segment when OSPF priority values are equal?

51 / 100

Which OSPF network type is the default for point-to-point serial links and does not require Designated Router or Backup Designated Router election?

52 / 100

An HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) group is configured with two routers. Which router forwards traffic sent to the virtual gateway IP address under normal operating conditions?

53 / 100

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is an open IETF standard, unlike HSRP which is Cisco proprietary?

54 / 100

A network engineer needs to subnet the network 192.168.10.0/24 to support at least 30 usable hosts per subnet while wasting as few addresses as possible. Which subnet mask should be used?

55 / 100

Which IPv6 address type is used for communication between a single sender and the single nearest interface among a group of interfaces, typically used in load-balancing or redundancy scenarios?

56 / 100

Which IPv6 address is automatically assigned to every IPv6-enabled interface and is used only for communication within the local network segment, never routed beyond it?

57 / 100

Which type of Network Address Translation maps a single inside local IP address to a single, unique inside global IP address on a one-to-one, permanent basis?

58 / 100

Which NAT technique allows many internal hosts to share a single public IP address by translating both the IP address and the port number for each connection?

59 / 100

In NTP (Network Time Protocol) terminology, what does a stratum number represent?

60 / 100

Which DHCP message is sent by a client to formally request the specific IP address offered by a DHCP server, broadcast so that any other DHCP servers that made offers know their offers were not accepted?

61 / 100

Which switch port security violation mode drops offending frames, increments the violation counter, and sends an SNMP trap and syslog message, but does NOT shut down the port?

62 / 100

Which AAA function is responsible for tracking and logging what a user did after being granted access, such as recording commands executed during a session?

63 / 100

A standard IPv4 access control list is being used to filter traffic based only on source IP address. Which of the following correctly describes a key limitation of standard ACLs compared to extended ACLs?

64 / 100

Where should an extended access control list generally be applied for the most efficient use of network bandwidth?

65 / 100

Which DHCP-related Layer 2 security feature prevents an unauthorized or rogue DHCP server from responding to client DHCP requests on untrusted switch ports?

66 / 100

Which type of VPN allows an individual remote user's device to establish an encrypted tunnel back to a central corporate network, commonly used for remote workers connecting from home?

67 / 100

In a software-defined networking (SDN) controller-based architecture, which plane handles communication between the SDN controller and the applications running above it?

68 / 100

Which data serialization format uses key-value pairs and arrays enclosed in curly braces and square brackets, and is commonly used in REST API request and response bodies?

69 / 100

Which HTTP verb is typically used in a RESTful API to completely replace an existing resource with a new representation?

70 / 100

Which configuration management tool is agentless, using SSH to connect to managed devices and applying configuration defined in YAML-based playbooks?

71 / 100

Which OSI model layer is responsible for logical addressing and determining the best path for data to travel across multiple networks?

72 / 100

A MAC address is 48 bits long and is typically displayed in hexadecimal notation. Which portion of the MAC address identifies the manufacturer of the network interface card?

73 / 100

Which type of Ethernet cable is required to directly connect two switches together using older network interface cards that lack Auto-MDIX support?

74 / 100

Which field in the IPv4 header is decremented by each router that forwards the packet, and causes the packet to be discarded once it reaches zero, preventing infinite routing loops?

75 / 100

A host needs to send a packet to another host on the same local subnet but only knows its IP address. Which protocol is used to discover the corresponding MAC address?

76 / 100

Which IEEE Power over Ethernet standard increased the maximum power delivered per port to support higher-power devices such as pan-tilt-zoom cameras, compared to the original 802.3af standard?

77 / 100

Which VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) mode allows a switch to create, modify, and delete VLANs, with those changes propagated to other switches in the same VTP domain?

78 / 100

Two trunk links between switches have mismatched native VLAN configurations. What is the most likely consequence of this misconfiguration?

79 / 100

Which EtherChannel load-balancing method distributes traffic across bundled links based on a hash of source and destination IP addresses?

80 / 100

Which Spanning Tree Protocol port state allows a switch port to learn MAC addresses from received frames but does not yet forward any user data traffic?

81 / 100

Which type of information can be learned about a directly connected Cisco neighbor device using Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)?

82 / 100

An administrator wants to prevent a wireless network's SSID from appearing in the list of available networks on client devices, requiring users to manually enter the network name to connect. Which wireless configuration accomplishes this?

83 / 100

Which type of routing protocol makes forwarding decisions based on a full topological map of the network built from link-state advertisements, rather than relying on periodic full routing table exchanges with neighbors?

84 / 100

By default, how does OSPF calculate the cost metric for an interface?

85 / 100

Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) is originated by every router to describe its own directly connected links and is flooded within its own area?

86 / 100

Which command correctly configures a static route to network 10.0.0.0/24 using an exit interface rather than a next-hop IP address?

87 / 100

Which type of static route is configured with a higher administrative distance than the primary route to the same destination, so it is used only as a backup if the primary route becomes unavailable?

88 / 100

Which IPv6 address assignment method allows a host to automatically generate its own global unicast address using information from router advertisements, without needing a stateful DHCPv6 server?

89 / 100

In an HSRP configuration, which value determines which router is elected as the active router when multiple routers are members of the same HSRP group?

90 / 100

A router receives a packet for a destination network that does not match any specific route in its routing table, but a default route (0.0.0.0/0) is configured. What will the router do with the packet?

91 / 100

Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv4 address?

92 / 100

Which QoS mechanism marks packets at the edge of a network based on classification criteria such as source, application, or DSCP value, so downstream devices can apply appropriate treatment without re-examining the traffic in depth?

93 / 100

Which of the following is a key security advantage of SSH over Telnet for remote device management?

94 / 100

Which three properties make up the foundational CIA triad used to describe core information security goals?

95 / 100

Which wireless security standard introduced Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to replace the pre-shared key exchange method used in WPA2, improving resistance to offline dictionary attacks?

96 / 100

Which syslog severity level indicates the most critical condition, representing a system that is unusable?

97 / 100

In a firewall zone-based security model, what generally happens to traffic attempting to pass between two zones with no explicit policy defined between them?

98 / 100

Which of the following is a recommended security practice for storing user passwords in a system's authentication database, rather than storing the actual plaintext password?

99 / 100

Which protocol, often paired with the YANG data modeling language, is used for programmatic configuration management and retrieval of operational state from network devices?

100 / 100

Which Cisco platform provides centralized, controller-based management, automation, and assurance for enterprise wired and wireless networks, often used as an example of controller-based networking in the CCNA blueprint?

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The average score is 69%

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